In late 2023, the GRE underwent a significant transformation, revising its exam pattern to introduce a shorter format. This new version of the GRE presents a unique challenge for test-takers; although it features fewer questions, each one is crafted to be trickier, amplifying the importance of accuracy due to a significantly reduced margin for error.

Recognizing the need for high-quality preparation materials that accurately reflect these changes, I am excited to share a collection of free practice questions designed to mimic the real GRE questions of 2024.

With a teaching career in GRE preparation that spans over a decade since 2012, I’ve had the privilege of guiding over 20,000 students. Their continuous feedback and real-time insights from daily GRE test-takers have been invaluable in shaping this resource.

These practice questions are a culmination of that experience, tailored to give you a taste of what to expect and help you navigate the nuances of the newly revised exam. Embrace this opportunity to hone your skills and approach the GRE with confidence.

These questions cover all the different types of questions currently being tested on the shorter GRE version.

You can also take these Free GRE Practice Questions in a quiz format here.

GRE Quantitative Comparison Practice Questions

Question 1

There are two polygons: X and Y.  

Polygon X has n sides where n>5. 

Polygon Y has twice as many sides as polygon X.

Quantity A: Two times the sum of the interior angles of polygon X

Quantity B: Sum of the interior angles of polygon Y

• Quantity A is greater.
• Quantity B is greater.
• The two quantities are equal.
• The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

Question 2

In a set of 9 numbers, 5 numbers are greater than 250 and 4 numbers are less than 250.

Quantity A: The median of these 9 numbers

Quantity B: 250

• Quantity A is greater.
• Quantity B is greater.
• The two quantities are equal.
• The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

Question 3

In a certain library, there are both fiction and non-fiction books. Today there are p fewer fiction books and q fewer non-fiction books than there were yesterday, where p=q>0. Today there are fewer fiction books than non-fiction books in the library.

Quantity A: The percent decrease in the number of fiction books from yesterday to today.

Quantity B: The percent decrease in the number of non-fiction books from yesterday to today.

• Quantity A is greater.
• Quantity B is greater.
• The two quantities are equal.
• The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

GRE Numeric Entry Practice Questions

Question 1

There are 41 people in a line including Andrew and James. Andrew is in front of James and 7 people are between Andrew and James. 13 people are behind James. How many people are ahead of Andrew?

Question 2

The interquartile range of the salaries of 280 employees in an organization is 38, and the range of the salaries of the 280 employees is 46. However, an error was made while recording the salaries of the 280 employees and each of the salaries needs to be corrected by multiplying it by 3 and then subtracting 7 from the product. For the revised salaries, what will be the ratio of the interquartile range to the range?

GRE “Indicate All that Apply” Practice Questions

Question 1

There are three points A, B, and C that do not lie in a straight line. The distance from point A to point B is 109 and the distance from point B to C is 73. Which of the following could be the distance from point A to C?

Indicate all that apply.

• 18
• 36
• 88
• 108
• 179
• 182
• 192
• 193

Question 2

A list consists of 4 positive integers. Which of the following statements individually provide(s) sufficient information to determine that the range of the list is greater than or equal to 3?

Indicate all such statements.

• The difference between two of the integers in the list is greater than 2.
• The difference between the largest and the smallest integer in the list is less than 5.
• The difference between two of the integers in the list is 5.

GRE Data Analysis/Interpretation Practice Questions

Question 1

For which of the following countries was the number of European museums related to architecture, art, history greater than 3/5  of the number of public museums for that country?

Indicate all such countries.

• Austria
• Croatia
• Estonia
• France
• Hungary
• Netherlands
• Spain
• Switzerland

Question 2

The graph above shows the number of students graduating with a US Master’s degree, 1990-2000. Which of the following approximates the median annual number of students graduating with a US master’s degree for the years from 1990 to 2000, inclusive.

• 240,000
• 270,000
• 315,000
• 340,000
• 350,000

GRE Reading Comprehension Practice Questions

Studies analyzing the genetic history of North American songbird populations have yielded both expected and surprising results. As anticipated, analyses reveal that current levels of species diversity and population distribution correlate with ecological changes following the retreat of glaciers.  For instance, species inhabiting higher latitudes demonstrate reduced genetic variation – indicative of population bottlenecks after retreating ice opened new territory. Surprisingly, and contrary to some models, genetic similarity seems more influenced by current climate and ecological zones than by geographical proximity. In some cases, related species exhibit high degrees of genetic divergence despite inhabiting very similar, adjacent locales. These findings are prompting novel questions about the role of microhabitat adaptation and behavioral mechanisms in promoting speciation. Researchers must determine if genetic differentiation precedes behavioral isolation or arises as a consequence of such changes. 

Question 1

The bold text primarily serves to:

(A) Provide evidence supporting a previous theory about speciation in North American songbirds.

(B) Describe an observation contradicting certain theories of geographical isolation in birds.

(C) Qualify the relevance of certain findings regarding habitat preferences of songbirds.

(D) Illustrate how research into one area of speciation can have bearing on a wider theoretical debate.

(E) Suggest limitations in using a single factor to explain population dispersal in songbirds.

Question 2

The overall purpose of the passage is to: 

(A) Call for a re-examination of previously accepted theories of dispersal following glaciation.

(B) Outline the main conclusions of recent genetic studies on a particular subset of birds.

(C) Highlight unexpected findings within a body of research, prompting new avenues of inquiry.

(D) Demonstrate a specific instance where genetic data offers insight into bird migration patterns.

(E) Argue against the use of genetic studies for the categorization of diverse avian species.

Question 3

It can be inferred from the passage that proponents of geographical isolation models of speciation would find these research results: 

(A) Largely irrelevant to their work due to the specific species studied.

(B) Confirmatory given the correlation of species diversity with ecological change.

(C) Problematic due to the emphasis on ecological adaptation over proximity.

(D) Encouraging since they indicate further investigation is warranted.

(E) In need of replication by studies across more geographically diverse ecosystems.

GRE Text Completion Practice Questions

Question 1

The writings of political philosophers are often surprisingly _______, addressing fundamental questions of social organization that remain relevant despite the passage of centuries and the rise and fall of various governmental structures.

(select one entry for each blank from the corresponding column of choices)

• Prescient
• Obsolete
• Ephemeral
• Partisan
• Incomprehensible

Question 2

The renowned author’s early novels often (i) _______ sentimentality; her characters were prone to grand emotional gestures and tearful declarations.  However, critics noted a shift in her later works, marked by a newfound (ii) _______. 

(select one entry for each blank from the corresponding column of choices)

Blank (i)

• obscured
• exuded
• tempered

Blank (ii) 

• cynicism
• exuberance
• melodrama

Question 3

The historian’s latest research sought to (i) _______the widely-held perception of the Middle Ages as a period of intellectual stagnation. She provided ample evidence of ongoing scientific inquiry, demonstrating that the era was not the technological (ii) _______ it’s often portrayed as. Furthermore, records of resource scarcity and trade disputes suggest that issues of (iii) _______ were a driving force behind many geopolitical events.

(select one entry for each blank from the corresponding column of choices)

Blank (i)

• perpetuate
• undermine
• corroborate

Blank (ii) 

• backwater
• golden age
• utopia

Blank (iii) 

• benevolence
• cooperation
• competition

GRE Sentence Equivalence Practice Questions

Question 1

The ornate furniture, while undeniably beautiful, seemed oddly out of place in the otherwise _____ cabin.

(select the two answer choices that, when used to complete the sentence)

• humble
• spartan
• cluttered
• antiquated
• luxurious
• spacious

Question 2

Despite the seemingly straightforward rules of the game, it’s possible outcomes are surprisingly ________, making any reliance on intuition a recipe for failure.

(select the two answer choices that, when used to complete the sentence)

• limited
• counterintuitive
• chaotic
• unexpected
• variable
• deceptive

Question 3

The author’s critique pointed to the artwork as mere _________, revealing a complete lack of understanding regarding artistic context, symbolism, and innovation.

(select the two answer choices that, when used to complete the sentence)

• fabrications
• propaganda
• unoriginal
• classics
• derivative
• concoction

Explanations GRE Quantitative Comparison Practice Questions

Question 1

To solve this problem, let’s first recall the formula for calculating the sum of the interior angles of a polygon, which is (n-2)*180, where n is the number of sides in the polygon.

Given:

• Polygon X has n sides, where n>5.
• Polygon Y has twice as many sides as polygon X, so it has 2n sides.

Let’s calculate Quantity A and Quantity B:

Quantity A: Two times the sum of the interior angles of polygon X

Using the formula, the sum of the interior angles of polygon X is (n-2)*180. Therefore, Quantity A, which is two times this sum, is 2[(n-2)*180].

Quantity B: Sum of the interior angles of polygon Y

For polygon Y, which has 2n sides, the sum of the interior angles using the same formula is [(2n-2)*180].

Let’s simplify and compare both quantities:

• Quantity A: 2(n-2)*180=2n*180-4*180
• Quantity B: (2n-2)*180=2n*180-2*180

By comparing these expressions, we see that Quantity A subtracts 4*180 from 2n*180, while Quantity B subtracts 2*180 from 2n*180. Hence, Quantity A is smaller than Quantity B because subtracting a larger number (for A) results in a smaller total compared to subtracting a smaller number (for B).

Therefore, Quantity B is greater than Quantity A.

Question 2

To solve this problem, we need to understand what the median of a set of numbers means. The median is the middle value when the numbers are arranged in ascending order. If there is an odd number of numbers in the set, the median is the middle number. For a set of 9 numbers, the median would be the 5th number when arranged in ascending order.

Given:

• 5 numbers are greater than 250.
• 4 numbers are less than 250.

Let’s analyze how the arrangement of these numbers could affect the median:

• The 4 numbers less than 250 will occupy the first 4 positions when the numbers are arranged in ascending order.
• The next position, which is the 5th position and thus the median position for a set of 9 numbers, will be occupied by one of the numbers greater than 250, because we’ve already placed all 4 numbers that are less than 250.

Therefore, regardless of the exact values of these numbers, the median (the 5th number in the set) will be greater than 250 because it is one of the 5 numbers that are greater than 250.

Thus, Quantity A is greater than Quantity B.

Question 3

To solve this question, let’s denote the number of fiction books yesterday as F and the number of non-fiction books yesterday as N. According to the problem, there are p fewer fiction books and q fewer non-fiction books than there were yesterday, and we know that p=q>0. Today, the number of fiction books is F-p and the number of non-fiction books is N-q. Given that today there are fewer fiction books than non-fiction books, it means F-p<N-q, but since p=q, this simplifies to F<N.

Quantity A: Percent Decrease in Fiction Books

The percent decrease in the number of fiction books from yesterday to today is calculated as (p/F)*100.

Quantity B: Percent Decrease in Non-Fiction Books

Similarly, the percent decrease in the number of non-fiction books from yesterday to today is calculated as (q/N)*100.

Since p=q, the comparison between the two quantities boils down to comparing p/F and q/N, or simply 1/F and 1/N because p=q.

Given that F<N, we have:

• For Quantity A: The percent decrease is inversely proportional to F.
• For Quantity B: The percent decrease is inversely proportional to N.

Because F<N, the percent decrease for fiction books (Quantity A) is larger than the percent decrease for non-fiction books (Quantity B).

Therefore, Quantity A is greater than Quantity B.

Explanations GRE Numeric Entry Practice Questions

Question 1

Given:

• There are 41 people in total in the line.
• Andrew is ahead of James.
• There are 7 people between Andrew and James.
• There are 13 people behind James.

To find the number of people ahead of Andrew, we consider the positions of Andrew, James, the people between them, and those behind James.

The total number of people from James to the end of the line, including James, those between him and Andrew, and those behind him is:

• 7 (between Andrew and James)
• 1 (James himself)
• 13 (behind James)

This totals to 21 people when you count James, the 7 people between them, and the 13 people behind James.

Andrew is ahead of all these people. Since the total number in line is 41 and considering Andrew’s position relative to James and the others:

• If we have 21 people from James to the end of the line, including James, then we are not including Andrew in this count.
• Andrew is ahead of these 21 people, meaning he is the 20th person in line from the back.

To find how many people are ahead of Andrew, we don’t count Andrew himself. So, if he is the 20th person from the back in a line of 41:

41-20=21

However, since Andrew is the 20th person from the back, and considering the correct approach, we should actually look at how many people are ahead of him, not including him, which gives us:

20-1=19

So, there are 19 people ahead of Andrew in the line. This directly addresses the lineup with clarity: acknowledging my mistake in the complex explanation and providing the correct answer directly related to the problem’s setup.

Question 2

To solve this question, let’s first understand the key concepts involved:

1. Interquartile Range (IQR): The difference between the 75th percentile (Q3) and the 25th percentile (Q1) in a dataset. It represents the range of the middle 50% of the data.
2. Range: The difference between the maximum and minimum values in a dataset.

Given:

• The original interquartile range (IQR) of salaries = 38
• The original range of salaries = 46
• Correction formula for each salary = 3*salary-7

We’re asked to find the ratio of the revised IQR to the revised range.

Important Observations:

• Multiplying by a constant (in this case, 3) and subtracting a constant (in this case, 7) affects the dataset’s spread (range and IQR) and location (mean, median) but in a specific way.
• Multiplying all values by a constant scales the spread (range and IQR) by that constant.
• Subtracting (or adding) a constant shifts all values but does not affect the spread (range and IQR).

Given these operations, we can predict how the correction will affect the range and IQR of the salaries:

• The multiplication by 3 will triple both the range and the IQR.
• The subtraction of 7 will shift all values but won’t affect the range or the IQR.

Thus, the corrected IQR and range can be calculated as follows:

• Corrected IQR = Original IQR *3
• Corrected Range = Original Range *3

The ratio of the revised IQR to the revised range remains the same because the subtraction of 7 does not affect their relationship. Let’s calculate the ratio using the original values, multiplied by 3 (since this operation scales both equally and the subtraction doesn’t affect their ratio):

The ratio of the interquartile range to the range for the revised salaries, after applying the correction formula, is approximately 0.826. This means that even after adjusting each salary by multiplying by 3 and then subtracting 7, the proportional relationship between the spread of the middle 50% of the data (IQR) and the overall spread of the data (range) remains the same. This ratio is a direct result of both the IQR and the range being scaled by the same factor (multiplied by 3), while the subtraction of 7 shifts all values without affecting their spread.

Explanations GRE “Indicate All that Apply” Practice Questions

Question 1

To determine the possible distances from point A to C given that A, B, and C do not lie in a straight line, we can use the Triangle Inequality Theorem. This theorem states that the sum of the lengths of any two sides of a triangle must be greater than the length of the remaining side.

Given distances:

• AB = 109
• BC = 73

We want to find possible values for AC. Let’s denote AC as x.

Triangle Inequality Theorem Conditions:

1. AB+BC>AC, which means 109+73>x
2. AB+AC>BC, which means 109+x>73
3. BC+AC>AB, which means 73+x>109

Simplifying these conditions gives us:

1. 182>x (AC must be less than 182)
2. x>-36, which is always true since distance cannot be negative.
3. x>36

Therefore, the possible values for x (distance AC) must satisfy:

• Greater than 36
• Less than 182

From the options provided, the distances from point A to C that could be valid based on the Triangle Inequality Theorem are:

• 36 (This is actually the lower bound, so AC cannot be exactly 36 if A, B, and C are non-collinear, making this not applicable.)
• 88
• 108
• 179

The distances that cannot be valid are:

• 18 (too short, violates the Triangle Inequality Theorem)
• 182 (violates the condition that AC<182)
• 192 (too long, exceeds the maximum possible based on the Triangle Inequality Theorem)
• 193 (also too long, exceeds the maximum possible)

Thus, the possible distances from point A to C are 88, 108, and 179.

Question 2

To determine whether the range of a list of 4 positive integers is greater than or equal to 3, we will analyze each of the given statements individually to see if they provide sufficient information.

Range is defined as the difference between the largest and smallest numbers in a set. Therefore, if the range is greater than or equal to 3, the largest number must be at least 3 units greater than the smallest number.

1) The difference between two of the integers in the list is greater than 2.

Given that we’re looking at a list of 4 positive integers, if there’s a pair among these integers where the difference is greater than 2, it directly impacts the minimum possible range of the entire list. This is because, for the range to be defined, we consider the smallest and the largest numbers in the list.

If the difference between any two numbers is greater than 2, there are a few scenarios to consider:

• If these two numbers are the smallest and the largest in the list, then the range is directly greater than 2, potentially equal to or greater than 3, satisfying our condition.
• If the two numbers are not the extremes (smallest and largest), but one of them is, or their existence forces the range to extend (due to the positioning of the other numbers), the range could still be equal to or greater than 3.

For example, consider a list where two numbers differ by 3, like 1 and 4. Even if the other two numbers are between 1 and 4 (e.g., 2 and 3), the range from 1 to 4 is still 3. Alternatively, if the numbers are 1, 2, and two numbers greater than 4 (e.g., 5 and 6), the range is determined by the smallest (1) and the largest (6), providing a range greater than 3.

Upon this reevaluation, the correct interpretation of statement 1 should be that it indeed provides sufficient information to conclude that the range of the list is greater than or equal to 3. This is because having any two numbers with a difference greater than 2 implies that the overall spread of the list must accommodate this difference, which inherently suggests a minimum range of 3 or more, assuming the list’s numbers are distinct and positively spaced.

2) The difference between the largest and the smallest integer in the list is less than 5.

This statement gives us information about the maximum possible range but does not directly confirm that the range is greater than or equal to 3. For example, if the difference is less than 5, it could be 4, 3, 2, or even 1. Therefore, this statement alone does not guarantee that the range is at least 3.

3) The difference between two of the integers in the list is 5.

If the difference between any two integers in the list is exactly 5, this directly ensures that the range of the list is at least 5, which is greater than 3. This statement alone provides sufficient information to determine that the range of the list is greater than or equal to 3.

Explanations GRE Data Analysis/Interpretation Practice Questions

Question 1

Let’s go through the calculations for each country listed to understand the details of how we determine if the number of museums related to architecture, art, and history is greater than 3/5 of the number of public museums.

To do this, we take the number of museums related to architecture, art, and history for each country and compare it to 3/5 (or 60%) of the number of public museums in that same country. The formula we use is:

Related to architecture, art, history>35*Public museums

Here are the details for each country:

1. Austria:
• Related to architecture, art, history: 79
• Public museums: 203
• 3/5 of public museums: 3/5×203=121.8
• Since 79 is not greater than 121.8, Austria does not satisfy the condition.
2. Croatia:
• Related to architecture, art, history: 65
• Public museums: 220
• 3/5 of public museums: 3/5*220=132
• Since 65 is not greater than 132, Croatia does not satisfy the condition.
3. Estonia:
• Related to architecture, art, history: 67
• Public museums: 163
• 3/5 of public museums: 3/5*163=97.8
• Since 67 is not greater than 97.8, Estonia does not satisfy the condition.
4. France:
• Related to architecture, art, history: 780
• Public museums: 1053
• 3/5 of public museums: 3/5*1053=631.8
• Since 780 is greater than 631.8, France satisfies the condition.
5. Hungary:
• Related to architecture, art, history: 185
• Public museums: 615
• 3/5 of public museums: 3/5*615=369
• Since 185 is not greater than 369, Hungary does not satisfy the condition.
6. Netherlands:
• Related to architecture, art, history: 498
• Public museums: 713
• 3/5 of public museums: 3/5*713=427.8
• Since 498 is greater than 427.8, the Netherlands satisfies the condition.
7. Spain:
• Related to architecture, art, history: 679
• Public museums: 973
• 3/5 of public museums: 3/5*973=583.8
• Since 679 is greater than 583.8, Spain satisfies the condition.
8. Switzerland:
• Related to architecture, art, history: 291
• Public museums: 960
• 3/5 of public museums: 3/5*960=576
• Since 291 is not greater than 576, Switzerland does not satisfy the condition.

After performing the calculations, we find that only France, the Netherlands, and Spain have a number of museums related to architecture, art, and history that is greater than 3/5 of their public museums. This is why these three countries are the ones that satisfy the given condition.

Question 2

To find the median value, we need to order the annual number of students graduating from smallest to largest and then find the middle number. Since there are 11 years of data from 1990 to 2000 inclusive, the median will be the number of graduates in the 6th year after arranging the bars in ascending order.

Based on the graph, the median annual number of students graduating with a US master’s degree for the years from 1990 to 2000, is approximately 315,000.

Explanations GRE Reading Comprehension Practice Questions

Question 1

The bold text highlights a finding that contradicts some existing models, showing that genetic similarity in North American songbirds is more influenced by current climate and ecological zones than by geographical proximity. This directly contradicts theories that would predict geographical closeness to be the primary factor in genetic similarity. Therefore, the correct answer is (B) Describe an observation contradicting certain theories of geographical isolation in birds.

Question 2

The passage discusses findings from genetic studies of North American songbirds, emphasizing both anticipated and surprising results. It mentions how these results align or diverge from previous expectations and concludes by mentioning that these findings lead to new questions about speciation mechanisms. Thus, the passage primarily aims to highlight new, unexpected findings and how they open new research questions, making the correct answer (C) Highlight unexpected findings within a body of research, prompting new avenues of inquiry.

Question 3

The passage indicates that genetic similarity is more influenced by current climate and ecological zones than by geographical proximity, which would be unexpected and potentially problematic for proponents of geographical isolation models of speciation. This is because such proponents would expect geographical proximity to play a significant role in genetic similarity and speciation. Therefore, the correct answer is (C) Problematic due to the emphasis on ecological adaptation over proximity.

Explanations GRE Text Completion Practice Questions

Question 1

This sentence suggests that political philosophers tackle issues that continue to be important over long periods, despite changes in society and government. The key here is finding a word that conveys the idea that their insights or predictions remain applicable and insightful over time.

Options: (A) Prescient is the correct choice because it means having or showing knowledge of events before they take place, fitting the description of their writings’ enduring relevance.

Question 2

Explanation for Blank (i): This part describes the author’s early work as filled with intense and overt emotions. The correct word should suggest that these novels strongly displayed or were characterized by sentimentality.

Options for Blank (i): (B) Exuded is the right choice because it means to display an emotion or quality strongly and openly, aligning with the description of her characters’ behaviors.

Sentence (ii): However, critics noted a shift in her later works, marked by a newfound (ii) _______.

Explanation for Blank (ii): This shift indicates a change in tone or theme in the author’s later works, contrasting with the earlier sentimentality.

Options for Blank (ii): (A) Cynicism is appropriate as it implies a more skeptical or less sentimental approach than her earlier work, reflecting a significant change in tone. 

Question 3

Explanation for Blank (i): The historian aims to challenge or refute the common view of the Middle Ages. The correct word should convey the idea of arguing against this perception.

Options for Blank (i): (B) Undermine is the correct choice because it means to weaken or attack the foundations of an argument or belief, fitting the historian’s objective.

Part (ii): She provided ample evidence of ongoing scientific inquiry, demonstrating that the era was not the technological (ii) _______ it’s often portrayed as.

Explanation for Blank (ii): The sentence contrasts the actual intellectual activity of the Middle Ages with its negative stereotype. The correct word should describe this mistaken stereotype.

Options for Blank (ii): (A) Backwater fits, as it refers to a place or condition of stagnation or backwardness, which is how the era is incorrectly portrayed.

Part (iii): Furthermore, records of resource scarcity and trade disputes suggest that issues of (iii) _______ were a driving force behind many geopolitical events.

Explanation for Blank (iii): This part of the sentence highlights the competitive nature of geopolitical dynamics, driven by economic and resource challenges.

Options for Blank (iii): (C) Competition is the most suitable choice, as it directly refers to the rivalry or struggle for resources and influence described in the sentence.

Explanations GRE Sentence Equivalence Practice Questions

Question 1

Given that the furniture is described as “ornate” and “undeniably beautiful,” it implies that the furniture is highly decorative or elaborate. The key to solving this question lies in understanding that the furniture does not match the aesthetic or condition of the cabin, suggesting a contrast between the furniture and the cabin’s characteristic.

Let’s analyze the options:

A) Humble – This suggests the cabin is modest or simple, which contrasts with the ornateness of the furniture.

B) Spartan – This suggests the cabin is very simple, austere, or lacking in comfort, which would make elaborate furniture seem out of place.

C) Cluttered – This suggests the cabin is messy or filled with too many things. While this could contrast with “ornate” in terms of organization, it does not necessarily contrast with the idea of beauty or elaborateness in the same way that simplicity or austerity does.

D) Antiquated – This means old or outdated. While ornate furniture can also be antiquated, the term does not specifically contrast with the idea of the furniture being out of place due to its lavishness.

E) Luxurious – This suggests the cabin is expensive or comfortable, which would likely complement, rather than contrast, ornate furniture.

F) Spacious – This refers to the size of the cabin, suggesting it has a lot of space. While ornate furniture could seem out of place in a very spacious setting if the space is stark or minimalist, the term doesn’t directly contrast with the ornateness of the furniture in terms of aesthetic or simplicity.

The best answers are A) Humble and B) Spartan, as both imply that the cabin’s characteristic is simplicity or austerity, which would contrast with and make ornate furniture seem out of place. Both choices create sentences with similar meanings, highlighting the contrast between the elaborate furniture and the cabin’s simplicity.

Question 2

Let’s break down the sentence to understand its meaning better:

The sentence starts by saying that despite the game having straightforward rules, the outcomes are not as one might straightforwardly predict.

This discrepancy between the straightforward rules and the outcomes makes relying on intuition a bad strategy.

Given this context, we are looking for words that suggest the outcomes are not only surprising but also not easily predictable or understandable, which would justify why intuition isn’t reliable.

A) Limited – This suggests the outcomes are few in number or restricted in some way, which doesn’t necessarily make intuition unreliable.

B) Counterintuitive – This word means something is contrary to what one might intuitively expect. It fits well because it suggests that the outcomes of the game defy straightforward, intuitive predictions based on its rules.

C) Chaotic – While “chaotic” implies a lack of order or predictability, it emphasizes disorder more than the surprising nature of predictability or intuition’s failure.

D) Unexpected – This suggests the outcomes are not what one would predict, aligning with the idea that intuition, which relies on predicting outcomes based on perceived patterns or rules, would fail.

E) Variable – This implies the outcomes can vary greatly, but it doesn’t directly address the reliability of intuition, just the range of possibilities.

F) Deceptive – This suggests the outcomes might mislead or trick someone, which could imply a failure of intuition but focuses more on the intention to mislead rather than the unpredictability or complexity of the outcomes.

Based on this analysis, the best answers are:

B) Counterintuitive and D) Unexpected.

Both choices emphasize that the outcomes of the game do not align with what might be straightforwardly predicted based on its rules, making them both correct fills for the blank as they complete the sentence in a coherent and similar meaning, highlighting the unreliability of intuition in predicting these outcomes.

Question 3

Here, the sentence describes the author’s critique as dismissing the artwork by suggesting it lacks depth in understanding artistic context, symbolism, and innovation. Therefore, the word that fills the blank should imply something negative about the artwork, indicating it’s lacking originality or authenticity.

Let’s analyze the options:

Fabrications: This term suggests that the artwork is falsely conceived or made up, lacking authenticity. While it could imply a lack of originality or innovation, it doesn’t directly address the misunderstanding of artistic context or symbolism. It’s more about authenticity than about lacking depth or innovation.

Propaganda: This implies the artwork is used to promote a particular political cause or point of view. Using this word doesn’t directly address the critique of misunderstanding artistic context, symbolism, or innovation unless the artwork was indeed political in nature, which the sentence doesn’t specify.

Unoriginal: This term directly addresses a lack of innovation, suggesting that the artwork does not offer anything new or creative. It fits the critique of misunderstanding the artwork’s innovation aspect.

Classics: This term typically refers to works of art that have been accepted over time as being of the highest quality and outstanding of their kind. Using “classics” in this sentence would contradict the intended critique, as it would praise rather than criticize the artwork.

Derivative: Similar to “unoriginal,” this word suggests that the artwork lacks originality, being derived from something else without significant transformation or innovation. It fits the critique by suggesting the artwork doesn’t offer new insights or creative approaches, directly addressing the misunderstanding of innovation.

Concoction: This word implies something that has been created or mixed together, often with a negative connotation of being odd or unusual. While it could suggest a lack of coherence or authenticity, it doesn’t directly address the critique of misunderstanding artistic context, symbolism, or innovation as effectively as “unoriginal” or “derivative.”

Given this analysis, the two words that best complete the sentence to highlight a critique of the artwork’s misunderstanding in terms of artistic context, symbolism, and innovation are:

Unoriginal
Derivative

Both choices emphasize the critique’s focus on the artwork’s lack of originality and innovation, directly relating to the author’s misunderstanding of its artistic value.